...is limit as n goes to infinit? y of 1/(n*ln(n))
I mean, the second one is 1/ln(n)
I'll ask it differently. Is the limit as n approaches infinity of 1/(n*ln(n)) equal to 0? And is this because if you split it into two ( 1/n and 1/ln(n)) they approach 0, so you can just multiply them?