Did Christ do the will of God prior to the cross, also refuse mingled drink on the

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Allegory

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cross, to be risen higher? Eg: there's 2 mentions of "finished" in John,
one before the cross, and one at the cross;
And James says of "it is finished" at the cross:
law imputed sin, when it is finished, brings death.

Hebrews 10 also notes
the promise is received after doing the will of God,
which is: "I will have mercy, and not sacrifice", for
sacrifice is notably offered "by the law" = not justified;
And if not justified, then it's condemned: Matt 12:37,
explains why Jesus got "forsaken" = not approved,
for no man is justified "by the law" in God's sight.

John 3:17 God did not send his Son to condemn (law),
but rather through J-->C the world be saved (graced).

So Christ neither obeyed nor disobeyed law,
but gave Mosaic law no place whatsoever. Eg: it
was not since time began, no, nor every shall be.

Christ also refused the "mingled" drink of grace + law,
for it would be as being blessed + cursed = accursed.

So Christ notably sitteth "above" = "higher" = "harmless";
But Jesus sat "down" right on high, still having "enemies".
Such doesn't concur with let's be friends k-now: Jn 15:15.
 
I wish that they was a historical account of exactly what happened instead of just a religious one. Would they be different?
 
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