CuriousQuestioner
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- Nov 28, 2009
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Also, I noticed that the Septuagint renders the verb as "to worship" rather than the "to serve" that seems to be more of the gist in the MT. So is this an example of what Jewish colleagues tells me is the LXX showing itself to be more "Christian" than "Jewish" once one gets outside of the Pentateuch LXX?
Anyway, I'm curious how this passage has variously been understood through history. (Perhaps the APA group can help with this?)
Anyway, I'm curious how this passage has variously been understood through history. (Perhaps the APA group can help with this?)