how to prove that (e^(-r))(r)'s limit as r approaches infiniti is 0?

IochiT

New member
Nov 30, 2008
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hey guys, so i have this math problem and i need to show that the limit as r approaches infiniti for

(e^(-r))(r)

is 0. anyone know how to do this? when i tried l'hopitale's rule, nothing came of it, it just kept repeating itself. thanks!
i guess an easier way to say it would be

r/(e^r)

thanks!
 


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