Israel is a signatory to the UN's Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of...

17pdr

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...the Crime of Genocide ? There are some who have accused me of pointing the finger at Israeli and crying 'Genocide' and then stating that Israel is not committing Genocide per the definition of the UN's Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, without actually saying what the definistion under the convention.

Well it is as follows...

Article 2 of the Convention defines genocide as:
...any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such:

(a) Killing members of the group;
(b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group;
(c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part;
(d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group;
(e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.

– Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, Article 2

You will not that the convention does not state that to fall foul a nation or people have to have the intention to wipe out an entire race, religious group etc, but only PART of it.

In the knowledge of what UN's Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide actually says, and the definition it gives, is there a case for accusing Israel of breaking the convention by its treatment of the Palestinian Peoples, particularly those in Gaza ?

Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convention_on_the_Prevention_and_Punishment_of_the_Crime_of_Genocide
 
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