It is a federal offense to prescribe a Schedule 1 drug, and while I understand Obama has ordered the feds to not arrest doctors and patients who adhere to their state's laws, I'm just wondering how the states were able to override the DEA to begin with. I always thought when it came to drugs (legal or not), the federal government ruled all?
Please avoid starting a debate about whether it SHOULD be legal or not. I just want to know how the states got away with going against the federal government.
Please avoid starting a debate about whether it SHOULD be legal or not. I just want to know how the states got away with going against the federal government.