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Religion
Why go For-ward thru Jesus-->Christ, get in Christ, to be reconciled Up-ward
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<blockquote data-quote="Allegory" data-source="post: 2634046" data-attributes="member: 170779"><p>thru Christ-->God-ward? Why not go Back-ward in Jesus<--Christ like some do,</p><p>and thereby suffer persecution, as noted in 2Tim 3:12?</p><p>(the same blame game shame crossed Jesus suffered)</p><p></p><p>Why is Christ Jesus mirrorly the reverse of Jesus Christ?</p><p></p><p>Why don't most people even notice, or know not the difference</p><p>between descending Christ Jesus and ascending Jesus Christ:</p><p>Christ Jesus ends with Jesus, but Jesus Christ ends with Christ;</p><p>And for-ward growth in grace grows up unto the fulness of Christ,</p><p>is Graceful, and Merciful, and Peaceful, which "Jesus" was not,</p><p>since he flat out said he didn't come to bring peace, but division.</p><p>So there was division (not peace) "because of him": John 7:43,</p><p>and shall be wailing (not rejoicing) "because of him": Rev 1:7,</p><p>if we go bwd in CJ to J instead of fwd in JC to C.</p><p></p><p>Why does Paul The Apostle use both CJ and JC,</p><p>but also clarify that he's a fwd apostle of JC</p><p>who's writing unto the bwd CJ folk?</p><p></p><p>Why is JC the only foundation laid to build on?</p><p>Why does Paul open and close epistles with JC?</p><p>Why does the NT also open and close with JC?</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Allegory, post: 2634046, member: 170779"] thru Christ-->God-ward? Why not go Back-ward in Jesus<--Christ like some do, and thereby suffer persecution, as noted in 2Tim 3:12? (the same blame game shame crossed Jesus suffered) Why is Christ Jesus mirrorly the reverse of Jesus Christ? Why don't most people even notice, or know not the difference between descending Christ Jesus and ascending Jesus Christ: Christ Jesus ends with Jesus, but Jesus Christ ends with Christ; And for-ward growth in grace grows up unto the fulness of Christ, is Graceful, and Merciful, and Peaceful, which "Jesus" was not, since he flat out said he didn't come to bring peace, but division. So there was division (not peace) "because of him": John 7:43, and shall be wailing (not rejoicing) "because of him": Rev 1:7, if we go bwd in CJ to J instead of fwd in JC to C. Why does Paul The Apostle use both CJ and JC, but also clarify that he's a fwd apostle of JC who's writing unto the bwd CJ folk? Why is JC the only foundation laid to build on? Why does Paul open and close epistles with JC? Why does the NT also open and close with JC? [/QUOTE]
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