Why is Chord Theory so much more complex in Jazz than in Classical Music?

LawMan

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What is your response to this quote fro Wikipedia:

"One important feature of jazz is what theorists call "the principles of chord-scale compatibility": the idea that a sequence of chords will generate a sequence of compatible scales. In classical major-mode harmony, chords typically belong to the same scale. (For example, a I-ii-V-I progression in C major will typically use only the notes of the C diatonic collection.) In jazz, a four-chord progression may use four different scales, often as the result of chordal alterations. For instance, in C major, a jazz musician may alter the V chord G-B-D-F with a flattened fifth, producing G-B-D?-F. An improviser might then choose a scale containing these four notes, such as G whole tone (G-A-B-C?-D?-F), G octatonic [or symmetric diminished] (G-A?-B?-B-C?-D-E-F), or a mode of either D or A? melodic minor ascending (G-A-B-C?-D-E-F or G-A?-B?-C?-D?-E?-F respectively). In each case the scale contains the chord tones G-B-D?-F and is said to be compatible with it. This notion of "chord scale compatibility" marks a fundamental difference between jazz harmony and traditional classical practice."

Source:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jazz_scales
 
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