Can someone please clarify what this question means? Pertaining to...

superbad768

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...College World History.? How, if at all, was the advent of European colonial domination and neo-colonial influence in parts of African and Latin America during the latter part of the 19th century an especially modern development? If you wanna answer it that would be great, but if not, could you at least tell me what the question means in simpler terms?
 
The Europeans dominated and influenced Africa and Latin America with their colonies in the late 19th century.
How was that a modern development?

it's a stupid question.
It was modern because it happened relatively recently and had never happened before.
 
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