Christians: Since John 20:28 is used to show that Jesus is God?

JuliusO

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because of the usage of the greek word: Theos (god), as what has been told me in my previous questions.

And we see that in the following Greek Concordance, that the term Theos is used:

John 20:28 N-NMS
BIB: ??? ? ???? ???.
NAS: and said to Him, My Lord and my God!
KJV: and my God.
INT: and God of me.

If we use that reasoning, that because Jesus is called God, Theos, that means that he is God almighty, then what do we do with 1 Corinthians 4:4?:

2 Corinthians 4:4 N-NMS
BIB: ??? ? ???? ??? ??????
NAS: in whose case the god of this world
KJV: In whom the god of this world
INT: whom the god the age

Does that mean that Satan, who is being talked about here, is also God Almighty?

These are both taken from: http://concordances.org/greek/theos.htm
----- ----- -----

Because how can you on the one hand use that reasoning for Jesus, but than not for Satan, when the same word is used? Why would the use of Theos only apply to someone being God Almighty in the case in the book of John, and not in the second letter to the Corinthians? The exact same word is used.

(Tags so others can search and answer: Jehovah, SDA, Seventh Day Adventist, Mormon, LDS, Methodist, Lutheran, KJV, NWT, NIV, Baptist, Pentecostal, Presbyterian)

Thanks!!
 
Here is the verse under discussion:

2 Corinthians 4:4




4 Satan, who is the god of this world, has blinded the minds of those who don’t believe. They are unable to see the glorious light of the Good News. They don’t understand this message about the glory of Christ, who is the exact likeness of God.

It explains that Satan is a small letter god meaning that he governs the world with his power as compared to Christ who has the attributes of the capital letter God,the ruler of the universe.
 
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