Does 0*0=0 when the first 0 is limit as n goes to infinity of 1/n and the second...

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brittle

New member
...is limit as n goes to infinit? y of 1/(n*ln(n))
I mean, the second one is 1/ln(n)
I'll ask it differently. Is the limit as n approaches infinity of 1/(n*ln(n)) equal to 0? And is this because if you split it into two ( 1/n and 1/ln(n)) they approach 0, so you can just multiply them?
 
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ironduke8159

New member
Question unclear. Limit as n --> infinity is not 0.
I see your explanation.
This is same as lim n --> infinity (1/n)/n which according to L'Hospital's Rule is 0
 
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