MissKayleeBee
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- Mar 16, 2011
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So I was in my human sexuality class and out teacher was talking about how her son went to a bible college, she doesn't want to say what kind of church she goes to so this is how she refers to it, and her son told her that in one of his classes the teacher taught that any form of contraceptives, besides the rhythm method, is considered abortion (which she was mortified by).
And I was thinking about it and I was like well, since that is considered abortion then shouldn't a women getting her period and not getting pregnant every time she ovulates be considered abortion too because, for example, if you use a condom you are just preventing the sperm and egg from joining...and even if you are using the rhythm method you are still technically preventing any sperm from getting to a ovum.
If that makes any sense? I know this is a random question...and it's opinion based...but TECHNICALLY speaking shouldn't what i thought be true?
And I was thinking about it and I was like well, since that is considered abortion then shouldn't a women getting her period and not getting pregnant every time she ovulates be considered abortion too because, for example, if you use a condom you are just preventing the sperm and egg from joining...and even if you are using the rhythm method you are still technically preventing any sperm from getting to a ovum.
If that makes any sense? I know this is a random question...and it's opinion based...but TECHNICALLY speaking shouldn't what i thought be true?