P pudding New member Nov 7, 2010 #1 Why does the law presume that the parties did not intend to be bound by their agreement in the case of domestic and social agreements? but the intention to create legal relations is presumed in commercial transactions. Why is this? Contract Law
Why does the law presume that the parties did not intend to be bound by their agreement in the case of domestic and social agreements? but the intention to create legal relations is presumed in commercial transactions. Why is this? Contract Law