So in the NIV Isaiah 14:12 says
"How you have fallen from heaven,
O morning star, son of the dawn!
You have been cast down to the earth,
you who once laid low the nations! "
Isaiah 14:12 in The King James Version says:
"How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning!
How art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!"
Now some may say, tomatoes tomatos. But wait, who does Revelations say the "Morning Star" truly is?
>>>NIV "I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you[a] this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star."
>>>King James Version "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star."
So with this slight change of wording, take out "lucifer" and add "Morning Star" whom Jesus says he is in Revelations. Is this an attempt to cause confusion in the reader, hide whom is truly the fallen one "Lucifer, and attack Christ? So this makes the NIV null and void right?
Revelations 22:16 is the same in both versions. It explicitly states who the "Morning Star" is. Why the need to change Isaiah 14:12?
Right, there is no word "Lucifer" in Hebrew because they don't believe there were any fallen angels
"How you have fallen from heaven,
O morning star, son of the dawn!
You have been cast down to the earth,
you who once laid low the nations! "
Isaiah 14:12 in The King James Version says:
"How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning!
How art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!"
Now some may say, tomatoes tomatos. But wait, who does Revelations say the "Morning Star" truly is?
>>>NIV "I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you[a] this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star."
>>>King James Version "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star."
So with this slight change of wording, take out "lucifer" and add "Morning Star" whom Jesus says he is in Revelations. Is this an attempt to cause confusion in the reader, hide whom is truly the fallen one "Lucifer, and attack Christ? So this makes the NIV null and void right?
Revelations 22:16 is the same in both versions. It explicitly states who the "Morning Star" is. Why the need to change Isaiah 14:12?
Right, there is no word "Lucifer" in Hebrew because they don't believe there were any fallen angels