Feb 6, 2009 #1 L Lovingzee New member Joined Feb 6, 2009 Messages 1 Reaction score 0 Points 1 Suppose f is defined and differentiable for every x>0, and f'(x)->0 as x ->infinity. Put g(x)=f(x+1)-f(x).? Prove that g(x)->0 as x-> infinity.
Suppose f is defined and differentiable for every x>0, and f'(x)->0 as x ->infinity. Put g(x)=f(x+1)-f(x).? Prove that g(x)->0 as x-> infinity.