Many people tend to group together certain thinkers (Descartes, Leibniz, Spinoza, Malebranche, etc.) as rationalists and certain others (Locke, Berkeley, Hume, Reid) as empiricists. But it is also well known that they wouldn't have thought of themselves as being members of the respective camps into which this conception groups them.
What I'm wondering is who proposed to group them together this way in the first place, and in what document.
What I'm wondering is who proposed to group them together this way in the first place, and in what document.