Why does the blessedness of man have no sin imputed to punish or forgive in

Allegory

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Psalms 32:2 and Romans 4:8? But the "blessed" in Psalms 32:1 (Romans 4:7)
is a cover up that gets uncovered by Luke 12:2?

So ww reconciliation in 2Corinthians 5:19 notes
"that God" in "Christ" does not law impute sin,
not even to them of them/us in Hebrews 1.
 
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