Would be anti-gay rights legislators: a question?

brian

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As per your responses here:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20100813201830AAMt21a&r=w
(if you don't want to click through, I had quoted Deuteronomy as an example of the "sanctity of marriage" as it exists in the bible.)

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If the "old testament rules no longer apply," then why do Christians still read the old testament? Why do they quote Leviticus when they're denouncing homosexuality? Why do creationists still take genesis seriously? Why is the old testament still used as reference for morality when it no longer applies?

Besides, how can the "word of God" ever be invalidated if he's perfect? Regardless if it's no longer a "law," your "God" still said it.

If the bible is the word of your infallible "God" and a law is in the bible, then you can't play it off like it doesn't count just because it's ridiculous. If "God" doesn't make mistakes, then what do you call those passages? if an infallible being declares an action as moral, can it ever be considered to be invalid?
 
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