No, I would not. Slavery has been long abolished on account of its outdatedness, and the fact that it is a moral evil.
Now, if you are asking me what about the Old Testament, we have to understand that the Old Testament system was a lot different from what happened in the U.S, and was meant specifically for the Israelites. Here are the reasons why
(i)Kidnapping people and making them slaves was forbidden under Hebrew law
-In most slave systems, one of the things that they did was the would launch raids into certain territories, kidnap captives, and force them into slavery. Examples of this would be the raids in West Africa that supplies the Atlantic Slave Trade, or the raids in Sub Saharan Africa that supplied the TransSaharan trade
-In Hebrew Law, kidnapping someone and forcing them into slave was in theory punishable by death(Exodus 21:16)
(ii)The Hebrew concept of a "servant" is a lot different from our modern concept
-The word that the Ancient Hebrews used that is translated as "servant" or "slave" is "Aved" which means "worker".
-They were seen as ordinary labor workers with labor rights like any Israelite. They worked 6 days a week and rested on the Sabbath(Exodus 20:9-11) just like how in modern society, employers work 5 days a week and usually have Saturdays and Sundays off
-If abused by their master, one of the things they could do is seek refuge among anyone in the surrounding community and gain legal protection(Deuteronomy 23:15-16). Compare this to other systems like the Babylonians for instance in Hammurabi's Code of Ethics where, if a servant runs from the master and seeks asylum, the person giving asylum to that servant is to be stoned to death
-Another consequence of the master abusing his servant is that he is to immediately give that servant his freedom(Exodus 21:26-27). In fact, going further, the servant can even sue his former master for abusing him in the first place according to the Babylonian Talmud(Tractate Bar Kamma)
I mentioned all this to differentiate the Old Testament system from what happened in America, lest many people(who probably are doing it now) make that connection.
But, the question may still be asked "where in the Bible is slavery condemned". Simple answer, 1 Timothy 1:9-10. There the Apostle Paul gives a lists the types of sinners who shall not inherit the Kingdom of Heaven and among them are 'liars, fornicators, murderers, abusers of men, SLAVE TRADERS'..........So the Apostle Paul is including slave traders in that list for participating in a system which he considered evil. So we do have Biblical basis for condemning Slavery.
In terms of the history of slavery itself, one of the things to note is that the earliers advocates for the Abolition of slavery itself where Christians. The Church Father Gregory of Nyssa in his 'Homilies on Ecclesiastes written in 385 A.D condemned slavery and called for its abolition on the ground that it was wrong to enslave another who was made in the image of God. This is the first recorded instance of slavery being condemned.
St Patrick(385-460 A.D), recognized as the patron saint of Ireland and a former slave himself(as well as the origin of Saint Patricks Day) also called for slavery abolition on similar grounds. When we look at the Abolitionist movement itself that arose in the 18th century, it found its seeds in a Christian world view. John Wesley and the Methodist movement for instance strongly condemned slavery and gave inspiration to William Wilberforce who was responsible for the abolition of the slave trade in the British Empire.
So given that record, i do think it is safe to say that we have good grounds on a Christian world view to condemn slavery