I sold a car to a friend who hit and run. I sold it and told her i would bring her the papers when I found them. A week later she hit an ran from hitting a parked car at an apt complex. Of course they called me b/c my name is registered to the plates. The guy wants to sue me for loaning a car to someone not having insurance to it. I went to her with the papers and had her sign a bill of sale and assumption of liabilities and put "date of sale" on the signature line which was a week earlier. She wouldnt provide me with her address, of course and it turns out she put a different first name on it but I filed it with the dmv. Will this be acceptable proof that I sold it beforehand, because in Tx you have 30 days to mail it. Will there be an investigation as to the fact she signed after the fact and being scared signed false name. I mean a csi detective could easily analyze handwriting and see that in fact she did sign it. But what if she says she signed it under duress? She should own up to this but has made it clear that she doesnt want to and wont go to court for a civil case in addition to all this criminal hit and run mess. Now what, besides the obvious, get a lawyer... fact is, I sold a car, i sold it really cheap in fact to help out a desperate friend. Oh and come to find out, the reason she ran was because her dl was suspended. So lets say that she was only loaned the car but the fact she drove knowing her dl was suspended...doesnt that trump my responsibility if ownership by her is not accepted? That she accepted a car bought or borrowed knowing she shouldnt and has no legal right to drive it?