I'm actually quite confused,wasn't this prophecy already fulfilled? It mentions the fall of the enemy kingdoms which did occur within the era of King Ahaz to whom the prophecy was related to.Then it further expounds that it is connected to the "Child" who would be present at this period,as said,not yet mature (Able to choose the good and reject the evil). Is there a hidden meaning in Isaiah 15-16 that make it separate from the previous verse? Or Did this child not exist? I know what christians believe regarding this scripture,but wasn't the prophecy already fulfilled?
(Honest answer,please answer,not looking to "Make a point",seriously want someone to help me)
2 Kings 15 verse 16 would be a good example,pretty much during this time the kings were killed,also there is mention of the king of Assyria coming,shall I say, "To the rescue". but either way it seems that the kings were killed and the kingdoms desolated,although if it indeed had to do with the one called jesus,I'm quite certain these verses wouldn't apply very well to him,pretty sure there was none of these kingdoms in his time.although I could always be wrong,to which I posted the above question.Thank you for answering
(Honest answer,please answer,not looking to "Make a point",seriously want someone to help me)
2 Kings 15 verse 16 would be a good example,pretty much during this time the kings were killed,also there is mention of the king of Assyria coming,shall I say, "To the rescue". but either way it seems that the kings were killed and the kingdoms desolated,although if it indeed had to do with the one called jesus,I'm quite certain these verses wouldn't apply very well to him,pretty sure there was none of these kingdoms in his time.although I could always be wrong,to which I posted the above question.Thank you for answering