H Hulu New member Mar 11, 2013 #1 Explain the how nobles at the end of the 1700’s could own land but hold no real power. ?
N nelson Member Jun 23, 2013 #2 In fact they DID hold real power because at that time there were property qualifications for the right to vote, and most nobles held property.
In fact they DID hold real power because at that time there were property qualifications for the right to vote, and most nobles held property.